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I think this is pretty obvious. And I don't mean that in a bad way. I am distinctly NOT saying "So what"? This is a very important point you are making here. It's one of those posts I want to read again, and I suggest you elaborate more on. The idea that some kinds of equivalent explanations have more legitimacy is a very strange but true aspect of human life. It's a point on which my understanding differs a lot from other people's. But it's very important for me to develop a stranger understanding of the idea of explanatory equivalency, and this post is a step forward in that direction.

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Thanks! I'll certainly revisit this. I like the idea of "explanatory equivalency", although I don't really buy into it: there are typically different explanations or modes of explanation that may be useful to different knowing subjects in different circumstances. That doesn't make them equivalent, but is also doesn't mean any one of them is "the best". But I'd also not say they were incomensurable in Kuhn's sense. They're more of a non-ordable set. I have to think about that more.

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